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Old 03-08-2013, 07:10 PM   #47 (permalink)
Trollheart
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It couldn't be more wrong, Jansz: "Historically music has always been for the rich"? Where did that come from? Even if she'd said "I think" but "Historically" makes it seem like she believes it's a fact, researched, and it just doesn't stand up to any examination, for at the very least the reasons I gave previously. It just makes no sense. You might as well say only rich people could write, or paint, which is just as off the beam as that statement.

I'm not trying to get at her, I just don't see where she got that assertion from. It's not an opinion as far as I can see, it's being offered as historical fact, and it most certainly is not. If anything, the reverse is true. The rich couldn't be bothered learning/playing music and historically the nobles, kings, landlords etc would engage bands or musicians to entertain them. These would often be from a much lower class. In fact, in many cultures musician was often ranked alongside beggar or pedlar in terms of social strata. It certainly was not a badge of nobility or wealth. Mozart, one of the most gifted musicians in history, died a pauper.
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