The media are reporting his drug use, and they are definitely acknowledging its part in his crimes, but I haven't considered it to be an implication that drug use leads to paedophilia.
The way I've interpreted is that in this case, the use of drugs was important to the enjoyment of his crimes. For example, he injected one of the mothers with heroin during the abuse of her child. I don't think its an implication that the drugs were in any way to blame for his actions, or that he wouldn't have committed the same crimes without them, but that he personally wished for drugs to play a role.
EDIT: It's also been reported that he may have given one of the children meth. Again, just a stand-up bloke by all accounts.
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