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Old 01-29-2015, 08:01 PM   #28 (permalink)
The Batlord
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Join Date: Jan 2011
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To me, for freewill to exist, then randomness also must. If everything is mathematically calculable, then there is no freewill, for everything is predestined according to mathematical laws. Human behavior might be more complex than 1+1=2, but if they are based on the same mathematical principles that govern the entire universe, then they are both just as predictable.

For freewill to exist, then you must be able to reproduce an experiment to gauge a human's behavior in a specific instance where all variables are exactly the same. Same person, same knowledge, same circumstances. All stimuli must be exactly the same in a mathematically predictable way. You'd basically have to be able to effectively time travel to the beginning of each instance of the experiment.

If even 1 time out of 1,000,000,000 a different outcome occurs, then there is freewill. Otherwise, no. And for a different outcome to occur then that would require the math of the situation to add up differently in that one instance. 1+1 would have to equal 3. And for this not to also be a mathematically calculable outcome, and therefore also not freewill, then the aberrant result would have to be completely random. For all intents and purposes, this would be magic.

For freewill to exist, the basic laws of the universe have to be broken.
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