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Old 04-16-2015, 03:20 PM   #523 (permalink)
Juicious Maximus III
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Join Date: Nov 2008
Location: Scabb Island
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Originally Posted by The Batlord View Post
So money never belongs to the person who "worked for it"? It's entirely communal? What about property? Where does ownership come into play?
This is a logical fallacy of the strawman variety. How do you go from paying a percentage of income to tax to : "So money never belongs to the person who "worked for it"? It's entirely communal?"?

edit :

To JWB, a simplified answer is society's losers are a burden on all of us. Just to illustrate a point - let's say you have a poor person. Scenario A, this person gets welfare taking him our her out of poverty. This costs society some, but hopefully, the welfare will enable this person to become a contributing member of society who pays back in taxes what society spent. But maybe not, it's a gamble. Scenario B, the person is in poverty and receives no help. This person likely has reduced quality of life, has a greater chance of becoming sick, of becoming a criminal, is less likely to become well educated, is more probable to engage in substance abuse etc. That person will also tax society. In money - possibly, particularly if he or she enters the criminal system, but there are other ways of taxing society too.

I think scenario A is generally the best option for a good society.
In the age of information, ignorance is a choice.

Last edited by tore; 04-16-2015 at 03:45 PM.
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