right well i mentioned in my initial post that i saw some flaws in his logic, the one that really comes to mind is that if there was some correlation between homosexuality and mental illness, i.e. even if homosexuals are x% more likely to be mentally ill than heteros, it doesn't mean that homosexuality is a result of mental illness or vice versa. it could just be a correlation. i've only taken the intro required classes on psychology but i remember from that the textbook stressing that you can't draw causation from a correlation alone.
but my question/thought experiment for you is, say such a correlation exists. just hypothetically speaking, say that homosexuality is caused by that hormonal flush or whatever in the womb, and that same hormonal flush can also cause the child to be bi polar or some other mental illness. and as a result the statistics say homosexuals are more likely than straight people to develop these disorders. how would you ever differentiate between that and the disorders being caused by suppression and homophobia?
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