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Originally Posted by DwnWthVwls
I'm not sure I follow. By your logic Agnostic athiests would have the burden of proof of demonstrating the lack of a god. I don't have to justify that wealth doesn't equal oppression, I simply don't accept it that it does.
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Then why does it occur in every single system that involves money?
As per your false equivalency: *ppppppfbffbfbfbfbtbtbfbtbpfbtbpfbfbtpffff*
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I mean if you wanna take the fact that I can't demonstrate what your asking than yes, you got me. I can't show you a system where wealth doesn't offer the potential for system exploitation, but again I'd have to ask is that really an inherent quality of wealth?
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I suppose it might be different for a dolphin or elephant society, sure.
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You can get the same influence with death threats, no? Exploitation/oppression seems like more of an inherent quality of human nature.
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And money is a tool that human nature appears to utilize in every case.
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An after thought: What about something like computer AI playing monopoly? It would follow the rules of the game (a system), and the richest "players" would never have unfair influence. You land on their spot, you pay the price determined by the price on your land card. I'm sure we could model a more complex system as a better demonstration, but would you accept some sort of theoretical simulation as an answer for the burden of proof your putting on me?
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That's just randomized oppression.