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Old 04-12-2008, 07:34 PM   #20 (permalink)
mr dave
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fal View Post
If a person is aroused by young children (BY DEFINITION therefore a paedophile), however is aware of the implications of acting upon such arousal (be it direct, through coercion of a child, or indirect through downloading child pornography) and thus declines from doing so then they should not be ostracised. It's as simple is that. The second they act on this arousal and begin to cause harm to others then it becomes a problem.

Now, when a person who is aroused by children abducts a child, and does nothing to them in relation to their arousal, using the label paedophile in the media portrayal of the story is scaremongering. It was a straight forward abduction and the labelling is excessive.
1st paragraph - when is the last time you heard of someone being labeled a pedophile without having first acted upon their arousal? like the earlier comment about murders and rapists people are only labeled as such after committing an act.

2nd - see above again. it is not excessive.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bandteacher1 View Post
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