Originally Posted by The Monkey

It's not written in a such a way.

Take the following passages:
Leviticus 20:13: If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads.

That isn't an objective documenting, that is God specifically telling people to execute homosexuals.

And the next one:
Genesis 19:4-8: Before they lay down, the men of the city, the men of Sodom, surrounded the house, both young and old, all the people from every quarter; and they called to Lot and said to him, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may have relations with them." But Lot went out to them at the doorway, and shut the door behind him, and said, "Please, my brothers, do not act wickedly. "Now behold, I have two daughters who have not had relations with man; please let me bring them out to you, and do to them whatever you like; only do nothing to these men, inasmuch as they have come under the shelter of my roof."

So the hero of the story, Lot, wants to protect the angels from being raped by the people of Sodom, and instead wants to give out his daughter to be raped. What morals can you draw from that?

Now, I'm not a saying that all Christians are immoral, but the reason people are moral can't be because of the bible. If it was, the sense of morality would be much different than is the case with most Christians.