Originally Posted by hip hop bunny hop

I am not a White Supremacist. However, the below are facts:

-African Americans commit more violent crimes than any other group in America
-African Americans commit more violent crimes against Whites than the other way around
-There is a profound racism in the African American community
-50% of American slaves were owned by individuals whom had 40 or more slaves
-the President is black
-America is white majority

Originally Posted by Janszoon

The first four are assertions you are making without backing them up. The fifth is only half right. Only the sixth is a clearly supported fact.

Originally Posted by hip hop bunny hop

....

We're discussing living African Americans. You know, the African Americans whom, themselves, were not enslaved. The African Americans, because of their ancestors enslavement don't find themselves in a 3rd world hellhole. The African Americans who have benefits such as: preferential awarding of contracts to minority owned businessess (on a federeal, state, and usually municipal level), prefential awarding of contracts to businesses which consciously try to hire 'oppressed minorites', affirmative action enacted for employment in Federal agencies, affirmative action for college admittance.... all this, in addition to the various benefits available to all citizens that would fall under the category of the social safety net (medicare, SSI, etc.). And then there's the benefits of - you know - living in an industrialized nation like... electricity, clean water, free primary education, etc.

Yes, slavery was ****. But the African American's we're discussing didn't go through it. However, as a result of it, they get all the benefits I listed above.


I suppose the question is; am I being more provocative than African Americans who bitch and moan about slavery they never experienced, but the rewards of which they reap when they turn on the goddamned faucet?

Originally Posted by Violent & Funky

I don't have the time to look them up and there is no reason for you to trust a stranger on the internet, but we did a project on violent crimes by race in my AP Stats class in high school and I remember what the other poster is saying as true. I also remember learning the fact about slave owners in my AP History class. Now, memories are often inaccurate so I'll let somebody pull up the proof before I go on, but I believe what he said to be true...

Originally Posted by Janszoon

My wife has a friend whose hillbilly high school taught her that Africans immigrated to the US and became slaves voluntarily. Color me unconvinced about the veracity of facts you think maybe you might remember from some high school class.

Originally Posted by Violent & Funky

Race and crime in the United States - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Slavery in the United States - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Originally Posted by Janszoon

That's nice of you to try and backup his arguments for him since I guess he can't be bothered. I have to question the relevance of the second link though. I realize you're linking to it because of a point someone else was trying to make but what does it really say? It shows that class differences existed among whites in the 19th century and not much else. The slave owners were still white, the slaves were still black.

As far as the first link goes, the most glaring thing about it to me is how overrepresented blacks are among victims of violent crime. The percentages of victims of violent crime are roughly equal between blacks and whites, despite the fact that the US is roughly 80% white and 13% black. Unless my math is wrong here, that means that a black person is about six times more likely to be the victim of a violent crime than a white person.

Originally Posted by hip hop bunny hop

-50% of American slaves were owned by individuals whom had 40 or more slaves

Originally Posted by Violent & Funky

The reason for the second link was this statement:

And this statement was presented as a fact:

While my evidence does not specifically prove it to be factual, it can be inferred to be true or very close to true.

Originally Posted by Violent & Funky

I also noticed that blacks are heavily over-represented amongst violent crimes, but I think an inference can be made: blacks are victims at roughly the same rate as whites. However, they also commit more violent crimes than whites, and as the table shows most homicides are committed within a race. 90% of black murders had a black victim, and because they commit more murders than any other race, it seems reasonable that they would also make up a high proportion of the victims...

Originally Posted by Janszoon

I understand the reason for the second link. I'm just saying that even if it proves what he was saying, it doesn't mean very much.

Originally Posted by Janszoon

But they aren't victims at the same rate as whites at all. According to the table you linked to, blacks are far more likely than whites to be victims of violent crime. 47.8% of all victims of violent crime in this country are black despite the fact that they are only 12.8% percent of the population. While 48.2% of all victims of violent crime are white despite the fact that they make up 79.8% of the population. Doesn't that strike you as a huge disparity?