Did you actually want to know the answer or did you just want to present a theory? Because everything I bolded you injected into this conversation.

As I said previously, if that was how everyone spoke it would require a squeak or a mistake in their voice that would have to be replicated multiple times over by people until it caught fire. The likelyhood of that is slim to non-existent. Oooor we could say that people with better hearing can identify the subtleties and nuances of enunciation.

And for the record, I will deny whatever I god damn well please.

I don't accept answers when they're worded as questions.

Pronunciations are dependent on regions and so are accents. I guess the better question would be do deaf people have accents? Or are they the closest thing to accent free speech since they're not able to pick up an accent?

I have no idea what you're talking about.

Tuna - The answer to your question is no. Deaf people occasionally have trouble speaking according to a certain model because they're unable to hear their own inflections and therefore their process of learning is slower and more deliberate. They ARE to an extent less culturally influenced in terms of accent, but a person speaking a language from first principles who can hear and previously had no communication skills, is more likely to overenunciate and rigidly define syllables to ensure adherence to a ruleset, whereas most deaf people do the opposite, and slur together words and sounds that should be seperate. An example of this is Swedish people speaking english are frequently over clear and rigid, which enables easy understanding of meaning but weak understanding of inflection.

As regards cultural variations on language - Thats irrelevant. Languages are constructed of a series of phonetic groupings and the interaction between those groupings leads to assimilation and appropriation of form by speakers of other languages or the bilingual over a period of time. Most if not all examples of regional accent while speaking a common language are examples of lingering cultural holdovers in pronunciation from previous dialects and cultures.

English is a particularly good example of this due to its mongrel nature, being comprised of hundreds of different languages all filtered through each other and various successions to create modern english. This is also why we have an unusually large spread of regional accents, compared to, say, Japanese, where there are only a limited number of regional dialects, which are currently in remission due to the greater standardisation of contemporary japanese, or hyōjungo.

Thanks, this is an actual substantial answer, with sound reasoning.

Ra-ra-ra-riiiimshooooot

ba-dum-tsh

:laughing:

Ok I have a question, who was the very first member to register for this site?

I've found member #2, Interactive: Music Banter - View Profile: Interactive

But can't find #1. Before someone says it, no Rockafella Skank wasn't #1, he's #3 apparently. Maybe #1 was a test account though? Making it impossible to find it.

i remember rock being named the first dude when i joined

That's what I thought, but if you click on a profile, the address bar tells the member number.

You are member #19,727 :clap:

Administrator?

Music Banter - View Profile: Administrator